Moses said, I did it then, while I was of those astray

Question 41: In the answer to a previous question, you said that Moses did not apologize for his killing of the Coptic because he was a work of Satan. Rather, you said that he intended to kill the Coptic and it was a righteous act; so if it was right for Moses to kill the Coptic, then what is the meaning of his saying in Surat ash-Shuaraa, (([Moses] said, “I did it then, while I was of those astray.))?

Moses struck him with his fist and killed him. He said This is of Satan’s work

1) Did Moses pbuh kill the Coptic by mistake, meaning without the intention to kill him, but it occurred because of a blow? And if Moses’ killing of the Coptic was intentional, does that make it a disobedience to Allah or an unfavored action?
2) The thing described to be {of Satan’s work}, was this the action of the killing (by Moses)?
3) What did Moses pbuh ask forgiveness for? And what is the guilt he committed?

Strike with your staff the sea, and it parted

That Pharaohs’ belief came after the water enclosed him and he was drowning in it, however, before death over took him completely.
And this possibility – which Sarkhi imagined to be valid – is incorrect. For the people to say in this physical world means the utterance of words, and this cannot be achieved without a medium in which he utters through, which is the air. So with the occlusion of water the utterance of Pharaoh’s voice was made absent due to the closure of the pathway of air, thus it is not possible for him to say anything.
It should also be noted that the water surrounding Pharaoh was two mountains.